QRZ! Ham Radio 5

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4AA-1.1 What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 75-meter wavelength band? A. 3525 kHz to 3750 kHz and 3775 kHz to 4000 kHz B. 3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz C. 3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 3890 kHz D. 3525 kHz to 3775 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz 4AA-1.2 What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 40-meter wavelength band? A. 7000 kHz to 7300 kHz B. 7025 kHz to 7300 kHz C. 7025 kHz to 7350 kHz D. 7000 kHz to 7025 kHz 4AA-1.3 What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 20-meter wavelength band? A. 14000 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz B. 14025 kHz to 14175 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz C. 14000 kHz to 14025 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz D. 14025 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz 4AA-1.4 What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 15-meter wavelength band? A. 21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21250 kHz to 21450 kHz B. 21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21300 kHz to 21450 kHz C. 21025 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21225 kHz to 21450 kHz D. 21025 kHz to 21250 kHz and 21270 kHz to 21450 kHz 4AA-2.1 What is meant by automatic retransmission from a repeater station? A. The repeater is actuated by a received electrical signal B. The repeater is actuated by a telephone control link C. The repeater station is actuated by a control operator D. The repeater station is actuated by a call sign sent in Morse code 4AA-2.2 What is the term for the operation of a repeater whereby the repeater station is actuated solely by the presence of a received signal through electrical or electromechanical means, without any direct, positive action by the control operator? A. Simplex retransmission B. Manual retransmission C. Linear retransmission D. Automatic retransmission 4AA-2.3 Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station automatically retransmit programs or the radio signals of other amateur stations? A. Only when the station licensee is present B. Only if the station is a repeater or space station C. Only when the control operator is present D. Only during portable operation 4AA-2.4 Which of the following stations may not be automatically controlled? A. A station transmitting control signals to a model craft B. A station in beacon operation C. A station in auxiliary operation D. A station in repeater operation 4AA-3.1 What is meant by repeater operation? A. An amateur radio station employing a phone patch to pass third-party communications B. An apparatus for effecting remote control between a control point and a remotely controlled station C. Manual or simplex operation D. Radio communications in which amateur radio station signals are automatically retransmitted 4AA-3.2 What is a closed repeater? A. A repeater containing control circuitry that limits repeater access to certain users B. A repeater containing no special control circuitry to limit access to any licensed amateur C. A repeater containing a transmitter and receiver on the same frequency, a closed pair D. A repeater shut down by order of an FCC District Engineer- in-Charge 4AA-3.3 What frequencies in the 10-meter wavelength band are available for repeater operation? A. 28.0-28.7 MHz B. 29.0-29.7 MHz C. 29.5-29.7 MHz D. 28.5-29.7 MHz 4AA-3.4 Which of the following repeater operating and technical parameters are ++++not++++ the responsibility of the area frequency coordinator? A. The repeater effective radiated power B. The repeater transmit and receive frequencies C. The repeater Height Above Average Terrain (HAAT) D. The repeater call sign 4AA-3.5 What frequencies in the 23-cm wavelength band are available for repeater operation? A. 1270-1300 MHz B. 1270-1295 MHz C. 1240-1300 MHz D. Repeater operation is not permitted in the 23-cm wavelength band 4AA-3.6 What is an open repeater? A. A repeater that does not contain control circuitry that limits repeater access to certain users B. A repeater available for use only by members of a club or repeater group C. A repeater that continuously transmits a signal to indicate that it is available for use D. A repeater whose frequency pair has been properly coordinated 4AA-3.7 What frequencies in the 6-meter wavelength band are available for repeater operation? A. 51.00-52.00 MHz B. 50.25-52.00 MHz C. 52.00-53.00 MHz D. 51.00-54.00 MHz 4AA-3.8 What frequencies in the 2-meter wavelength band are available for repeater operation? A. 144.50-145.50 and 146-148.00 MHz B. 144.50-148.00 MHz C. 144.75-146.00 and 146-148.00 MHz D. 146.00-148.00 MHz 4AA-3.9 What frequencies in the 1.25-meter wavelength band are available for repeater operation? A. 220.25-225.00 MHz B. 220.50-225.00 MHz C. 221.00-225.00 MHz D. 223.00-225.00 MHz 4AA-3.10 What frequencies in the 0.70-meter wavelength band are available for repeater operation? A. 420.0-431, 433-435 and 438-450 MHz B. 420.5-440 and 445-450 MHz C. 420.5-435 and 438-450 MHz D. 420.5-433, 435-438 and 439-450 MHz 4AA-4.1 What is meant by auxiliary station operation? A. Radio communication from a location more than 50 miles from that indicated on the station license for a period of more than three months B. Remote control of model airplanes or boats using frequencies above 50.1 MHz C. Remote control of model airplanes or boats using frequencies above 29.5 MHz D. Transmission of communications point-to-point within a system of cooperating amateur stations 4AA-4.2 What is one use for a station in auxiliary operation? A. Point-to-point radio communications within a system of cooperating amateur stations B. Remote control of model craft C. Passing of international third-party communications D. The retransmission of NOAA weather broadcasts 4AA-4.3 A station in auxiliary operation may only communicate with which stations? A. Stations in the public safety service B. Other amateur stations within a system of cooperating amateur stations C. Amateur radio stations in space satellite operation D. Amateur radio stations other than those under manual control 4AA-4.4 What frequencies are authorized for stations in auxiliary operation? A. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and 436-438 MHz B. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and 435-437 MHz C. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and 435-438 MHz D. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and 434-437 MHz 4AA-5.1 What is meant by ++++remote control++++ of an amateur radio station? A. Amateur communications conducted from a specific geographical location other than that shown on the station license B. Automatic operation of a station from a control point located elsewhere than at the station transmitter C. An amateur radio station operating under automatic control D. A control operator indirectly manipulating the operating adjustments in the station through a control link 4AA-5.2 What is one responsibility of a control operator of a station under remote control? A. Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 3 minutes if the control link malfunctions B. Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 4 minutes if the control link malfunctions C. Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 5 minutes if the control link malfunctions D. Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 10 minutes if the control link malfunctions 4AA-5.3 If the control link for a station under remote control malfunctions, there must be a provision to limit transmission to what time length? A. 5 seconds B. 10 minutes C. 3 minutes D. 5 minutes 4AA-5.4 What frequencies are authorized for radio remote control of an amateur radio station? A. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and 436-438 MHz B. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and 435-437 MHz C. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and 435-438 MHz D. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and 434-437 MHz 4AA-5.5 What frequencies are authorized for radio remote control of a station in repeater operation? A. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and 436-438 MHz B. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and 435-437 MHz C. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and 434-437 MHz D. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and 435-438 MHz 4AA-6.1 What is meant by ++++automatic control++++ of an amateur radio station? A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that a control operator does not have to be present at a control point B. Radio communication for remotely controlling another amateur radio station C. Remotely controlling a station such that a control operator does not have to be present at the control point at all times D. The use of a control link between a control point and a remotely controlled station 4AA-6.2 How do the responsibilities of the control operator of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control? A. Under local control, there is no control operator B. Under automatic control, a control operator is not required to be present at a control point C. Under automatic control, there is no control operator D. Under local control, a control operator is not required to be present at the control point at all times 4AA-6.3 Which of the following amateur stations may be operated by automatic control? A. Stations without a control operator B. Stations in repeater operation C. Stations under remote control D. Stations controlling model craft 4AA-7.1 What is a control link? A. The automatic-control devices at an unattended station B. An automatically operated link C. The remote control apparatus between a control point and a remotely controlled station D. A transmission-limiting timing device 4AA-7.2 What is the term for apparatus to effect remote control between the control point and a remotely controlled station? A. Tone link B. Wire control C. Remote control D. Control link 4AA-8.1 What is meant by local control? A. The use of a control operator who directly manipulates the operating adjustments B. The OSCAR satellite transponder C. A carrier operated relay system D. The use of a portable handheld to turn on or off the repeater 4AA-8.2 Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station? A. Any amateur operator B. Any Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class operator C. Any General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class operator D. Any Advanced or Amateur Extra class operator 4AA-9.1 How may a repeater station be identified? A. By a burst of digitized information B. Only voice may be used for identification C. By CW or voice D. Only CW may be used for identification 4AA-9.2 When a repeater station is identified in Morse code using an automatic keying device, what is the maximum code speed permitted? A. 13 words per minute B. 30 words per minute C. 20 words per minute D. There is no limitation 4AA-9.3 How often must a beacon station be identified? A. Every eight minutes B. Only at the end of the series of transmissions C. At the beginning of a series of transmissions D. At least once every ten minutes during and at the end of activity 4AA-9.4 When may a repeater be identified using digital codes? A. Any time that particular code is used for at least part of the communication B. Digital identification is not allowed C. Only voice may be allowed D. No identification is needed in digital transmissions 4AA-10.1 When is prior FCC approval required before constructing or altering an amateur station antenna structure? A. When the antenna structure violates local building codes B. When the height above ground will exceed 200 feet C. When an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway will be 150 feet high D. When an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway will be 100 feet high 4AA-10.2 What must an amateur radio operator obtain from the FCC before constructing or altering an antenna structure more than 200 feet high? A. An Environmental Impact Statement B. A Special Temporary Authorization C. Prior approval D. An effective radiated power statement 4AA-11.1 Without special FCC approval, what maximum height above ground level (excluding airport proximity effects) is permitted for any amateur antenna support structure, including the radiating elements, tower, supports, etc.? A. 46 m (150 feet) B. 61 m (200 feet) C. 76 m (250 feet) D. 91 m (300 feet) 4AA-11.2 From what government agencies must permission be obtained if you wish to erect an amateur antenna structure that exceeds 200 feet above ground level? A. Federal Aviation Administration and Federal Communications Commission B. Environmental Protection Agency and Federal Communications Commission C. Federal Aviation Administration and Environmental Protection Agency D. Environmental Protection Agency and National Aeronautics and Space Administration 4AA-12.1 Which of the following types of amateur communications is ++++not++++ a "prohibited transmission" as defined in Part 97? A. Transmission of messages into a disaster area for hire or for material compensation B. Transmissions ensuring safety on a highway, such as calling a commercial tow truck service C. Transmission of communications that facilitate the regular business or commercial affairs of any party D. Transmission of communications concerning moving, supplying and quartering participants in a charity event as long as the sponsoring charity is the principal beneficiary of such communications, not the public 4AA-12.2 May an amateur operator inform other amateur operators of the availability of apparatus for sale or trade over the airwaves? A. You are not allowed to sell or trade equipment on the air B. You are allowed to derive a profit by buying or selling equipment on the air on a regular basis C. This is a permissible activity if the apparatus can normally be used at an amateur station and is not done for profit by the offering individual on a regular basis D. This is allowed only if you also give the serial number of the equipment 4AA-12.3 Under what conditions, if any, may communications be transmitted to a commercial business by an amateur station? A. When the total remuneration does not exceed 25 B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC C. When transmitting international third-party communications D. When the immediate safety of human life or immediate protection of property is involved 4AA-13.1 What are the only types of messages that may be transmitted to an amateur station in a foreign country? A. Supplies needed, on a routine schedule B. Emergency messages or business messages C. Business messages or messages of a technical nature D. Personal remarks, tests, or messages of a technical nature 4AA-13.2 What are the limitations on international amateur radio communications regarding the types of messages transmitted? A. Emergency communications only B. Technical or personal messages only C. Business communications only D. Call sign and signal reports only 4AA-14.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may amateur operators accept payment for using their own stations (other than a club station) to send messages? A. When employed by the FCC B. When passing emergency traffic C. Under no circumstances D. When passing international third-party communications 4AA-14.2 Under what circumstances, if any, may the licensee of an amateur station in repeater operation accept remuneration for providing communication services to another party? A. When the repeater is operating under portable power B. When the repeater is under local control C. During Red Cross or other emergency service drills D. Under no circumstances 4AA-15.1 Who is responsible for preparing an Element 1(A) telegraphy examination? A. The volunteer examiners or a qualified supplier B. The FCC C. The VEC D. Any Novice licensee 4AA-15.2 What must the Element 1(A) telegraphy examination prove? A. The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international Morse code at a rate of not less than 13 words per minute B. The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international Morse code at a rate of not less than 5 words per minute C. The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international Morse code at a rate of not less than 20 words per minute D. The applicant's ability to send text in international Morse code at a rate of not less than 13 words per minute 4AA-15.3 Which telegraphy characters are used in an Element 1(A) telegraphy examination? A. The letters A through Z, 0/ through 9, the period, the comma, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN B. The letters A through Z, 0/ through 9, the period, the comma, the open and closed parenthesis, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN C. The letters A through Z, 0/ through 9, the period, the comma, the dollar sign, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN D. A through Z, 0/ through 9, the period, the comma, and the question mark 4AA-16.1 Who is responsible for preparing an Element 2 written examination? A. The FCC B. Any Novice licensee C. The volunteer examiners or a qualified supplier D. The VEC 4AA-16.2 Where do volunteer examiners obtain the questions for preparing an Element 2 written examination? A. They must prepare the examination from material contained in the ++++ARRL Handbook++++ or obtain a question set from the FCC B. They must prepare the examination from material contained in a question pool maintained by the FCC in Washington C. They must prepare the examination from material contained in a question pool maintained by the local FCC field office D. They must prepare the examination from a common question pool maintained by the VECs or obtain a question set from a supplier 4AA-17.1 Who is eligible for administering an examination for the Novice operator license? A. An amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or Extra class license and at least 18 years old B. An amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General, Advanced or Extra class license and at least 18 years old C. An amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or Extra class license and at least 16 years old D. An amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General, Advanced or Extra class license and at least 16 years old 4AA-17.2 Within how many days after the administration of a successful Novice examination must the examiners submit the application to the FCC? A. Within one week of the administration date B. Within 10 days of the administration date C. Within 5 days of the administration date D. Within 30 days of the administration date 4AA-17.3 Where must the completed Form 610 be submitted after the administration of a successful Novice examination? A. To the nearest FCC Field Office B. To the FCC in Washington, DC C. To the FCC in Gettysburg, PA D. To any VEC 4AA-18.1 What is the minimum passing score on a written examination element for the Novice operator license? A. A minimum of 19 correct answers B. A minimum of 22 correct answers C. A minimum of 21 correct answers D. A minimum of 24 correct answers 4AA-18.2 How many questions must an Element 2 written examination contain? A. 25 B. 50 C. 40 D. 30 4AA-18.3 In a telegraphy examination, how many characters are counted as one word? A. 2 B. 5 C. 8 D. 10 4AA-19.1 What is the minimum age to be a volunteer examiner? A. 16 years old B. 21 years old C. 18 years old D. 13 years old 4AA-19.2 Under what circumstances, if any, may volunteer examiners be compensated for their services? A. Under no circumstances B. When out-of-pocket expenses exceed 25 C. The volunteer examiner may be compensated when traveling over 25 miles to the test site D. Only when there are more than 20 applicants attending the examination session 4AA-19.3 Under what circumstances, if any, may a person whose amateur station license or amateur operator license has ever been revoked or suspended be a volunteer examiner? A. Under no circumstances B. Only if five or more years have elapsed since the revocation or suspension C. Only if 3 or more years have elapsed since the revocation or suspension D. Only after review and subsequent approval by the VEC 4AA-19.4 Under what circumstances, if any, may an employee of a company which is engaged in the distribution of equipment used in connection with amateur radio transmissions be a volunteer examiner? A. If the employee is employed in the amateur radio sales part of the company B. If the employee does not normally communicate with the manufacturing or distribution part of the company C. If the employee serves as a volunteer examiner for his/her customers D. If the employee does not normally communicate with the benefits and policies part of the company 4AA-20.1 What are the penalties for fraudulently administering examinations? A. The VE's amateur station license may be suspended for a period not to exceed 3 months B. The VE is subject to a monetary fine not to exceed 500 for each day the offense was committed C. The VE's amateur station license may be revoked and the operator's license suspended D. The VE may be restricted to administering only Novice class license examinations 4AA-20.2 What are the penalties for administering examinations for money or other considerations? A. The VE's amateur station license may be suspended for a period not to exceed 3 months B. The VE is subject to a monetary fine not to exceed 500 for each day the offense was committed C. The VE will be restricted to administering only Novice class license examinations D. The VE's amateur station license may be revoked and the operator's license suspended 4AB-1.1 What is ++++facsimile++++? A. The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picture when printed B. The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television C. The transmission of video by amateur television D. The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper 4AB-1.2 What is the modern standard scan rate for a facsimile picture transmitted by an amateur station? A. The modern standard is 240 lines per minute B. The modern standard is 50 lines per minute C. The modern standard is 150 lines per second D. The modern standard is 60 lines per second 4AB-1.3 What is the approximate transmission time for a facsimile picture transmitted by an amateur station? A. Approximately 6 minutes per frame at 240 lpm B. Approximately 3.3 minutes per frame at 240 lpm C. Approximately 6 seconds per frame at 240 lpm D. 1/60 second per frame at 240 lpm 4AB-1.4 What is the term for the transmission of printed pictures by radio? A. Television B. Facsimile C. Xerography D. ACSSB 4AB-1.5 In facsimile, how are variations in picture brightness and darkness converted into voltage variations? A. With an LED B. With a Hall-effect transistor C. With a photodetector D. With an optoisolator 4AB-2.1 What is ++++slow-scan++++ television? A. The transmission of Baudot or ASCII signals by radio B. The transmission of pictures for permanent display on paper C. The transmission of moving pictures by radio D. The transmission of still pictures by radio 4AB-2.2 What is the scan rate commonly used for amateur slow-scan television? A. 20 lines per minute B. 15 lines per second C. 4 lines per minute D. 240 lines per minute 4AB-2.3 How many lines are there in each frame of an amateur slow-scan television picture? A. 30 B. 60 C. 120 D. 180 4AB-2.4 What is the audio frequency for black in an amateur slow- scan television picture? A. 2300 Hz B. 2000 Hz C. 1500 Hz D. 120 Hz 4AB-2.5 What is the audio frequency for white in an amateur slow- scan television picture? A. 120 Hz B. 1500 Hz C. 2000 Hz D. 2300 Hz 4AC-1.1 What is a ++++sporadic-E++++ condition? A. Variations in E-layer height caused by sunspot variations B. A brief increase in VHF signal levels from meteor trails at E-layer height C. Patches of dense ionization at E-layer height D. Partial tropospheric ducting at E-layer height 4AC-1.2 What is the propagation condition called where scattered patches of relatively dense ionization develop seasonally at E layer heights? A. Auroral propagation B. Ducting C. Scatter D. Sporadic-E 4AC-1.3 In what region of the world is ++++sporadic-E++++ most prevalent? A. The equatorial regions B. The arctic regions C. The northern hemisphere D. The polar regions 4AC-1.4 On which amateur frequency band is the extended-distance propagation effect of sporadic-E most often observed? A. 2 meters B. 6 meters C. 20 meters D. 160 meters 4AC-1.5 What appears to be the major cause of the ++++sporadic-E++++ condition? A. Wind shear B. Sunspots C. Temperature inversions D. Meteors 4AC-2.1 What is a ++++selective fading++++ effect? A. A fading effect caused by small changes in beam heading at the receiving station B. A fading effect caused by phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station C. A fading effect caused by large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as experienced at the receiving station D. A fading effect caused by time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations 4AC-2.2 What is the propagation effect called when phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission are experienced at the recovery station? A. Faraday rotation B. Diversity reception C. Selective fading D. Phase shift 4AC-2.3 What is the major cause of ++++selective fading++++? A. Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station B. Large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as experienced at the receiving station C. Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations D. Phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station 4AC-2.4 Which emission modes suffer the most from ++++selective fading++++? A. CW and SSB B. FM and double sideband AM C. SSB and AMTOR D. SSTV and CW 4AC-2.5 How does the bandwidth of the transmitted signal affect ++++selective fading++++? A. It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths B. It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths C. It is equally pronounced at both narrow and wide bandwidths D. The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect 4AC-3.1 What effect does ++++auroral activity++++ have upon radio communications? A. The readability of SSB signals increases B. FM communications are clearer C. CW signals have a clearer tone D. CW signals have a fluttery tone 4AC-3.2 What is the cause of ++++auroral activity++++? A. A high sunspot level B. A low sunspot level C. The emission of charged particles from the sun D. Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes 4AC-3.3 In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a directional antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation? A. South B. North C. East D. West 4AC-3.4 Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur? A. At F-layer height B. In the equatorial band C. At D-layer height D. At E-layer height 4AC-3.5 Which emission modes are best for auroral propagation? A. CW and SSB B. SSB and FM C. FM and CW D. RTTY and AM 4AC-4.1 Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? A. E-layer skip B. D-layer skip C. Auroral skip D. Radio waves may be bent 4AC-4.2 How much farther does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? A. By approximately 15% of the distance B. By approximately twice the distance C. By approximately one-half the distance D. By approximately four times the distance 4AC-4.3 To what distance is VHF propagation ordinarily limited? A. Approximately 1000 miles B. Approximately 500 miles C. Approximately 1500 miles D. Approximately 2000 miles 4AC-4.4 What propagation condition is usually indicated when a VHF signal is received from a station over 500 miles away? A. D-layer absorption B. Faraday rotation C. Tropospheric ducting D. Moonbounce 4AC-4.5 What happens to a radio wave as it travels in space and collides with other particles? A. Kinetic energy is given up by the radio wave B. Kinetic energy is gained by the radio wave C. Aurora is created D. Nothing happens since radio waves have no physical substance 4AD-1.1 What is a ++++frequency standard++++? A. A net frequency B. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency C. A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz D. A device used to generate wideband random frequencies 4AD-1.2 What is a ++++frequency-marker generator++++? A. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency B. A sweep generator C. A broadband white noise generator D. A device used to generate wideband random frequencies 4AD-1.3 How is a frequency-marker generator used? A. In conjunction with a grid-dip meter B. To provide reference points on a receiver dial C. As the basic frequency element of a transmitter D. To directly measure wavelength 4AD-1.4 What is a ++++frequency counter++++? A. A frequency measuring device B. A frequency marker generator C. A device that determines whether or not a given frequency is in use before automatic transmissions are made D. A broadband white noise generator 4AD-1.5 How is a frequency counter used? A. To provide reference points on an analog receiver dial B. To generate a frequency standard C. To measure the deviation in an FM transmitter D. To measure frequency 4AD-1.6 What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm? A. 165.2 Hz B. 14.652 kHz C. 146.52 Hz D. 1.4652 MHz 4AD-1.7 What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm? A. 14.652 Hz B. 0.1 MHz C. 1.4652 Hz D. 1.4652 kHz 4AD-1.8 What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm? A. 146.52 Hz B. 10 Hz C. 146.52 kHz D. 1465.20 Hz 4AD-1.9 What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm? A. 43.21 MHz B. 10 Hz C. 1.0 MHz D. 432.1 Hz 4AD-1.10 What is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm? A. 43.21 Hz B. 0.1 MHz C. 432.1 Hz D. 0.2 MHz 4AD-1.11 What is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm? A. 10 MHz B. 10 Hz C. 4321 Hz D. 432.1 Hz 4AD-2.1 What is a ++++dip-meter++++? A. A field strength meter B. An SWR meter C. A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current D. A marker generator 4AD-2.2 Why is a dip-meter used by many amateur operators? A. It can measure signal strength accurately B. It can measure frequency accurately C. It can measure transmitter output power accurately D. It can give an indication of the resonant frequency of a circuit 4AD-2.3 How does a dip-meter function? A. Reflected waves at a specific frequency desensitize the detector coil B. Power coupled from an oscillator causes a decrease in metered current C. Power from a transmitter cancels feedback current D. Harmonics of the oscillator cause an increase in resonant circuit Q 4AD-2.4 What two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur station? A. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure percentage of modulation B. To measure antenna resonance and to measure percentage of modulation C. To measure antenna resonance and to measure antenna impedance D. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure a tuned circuit resonant frequency 4AD-2.5 What types of coupling occur between a dip-meter and a tuned circuit being checked? A. Resistive and inductive B. Inductive and capacitive C. Resistive and capacitive D. Strong field 4AD-2.6 How tight should the dip-meter be coupled with the tuned circuit being checked? A. As loosely as possible, for best accuracy B. As tightly as possible, for best accuracy C. First loose, then tight, for best accuracy D. With a soldered jumper wire between the meter and the circuit to be checked, for best accuracy 4AD-2.7 What happens in a dip-meter when it is too tightly coupled with the tuned circuit being checked? A. Harmonics are generated B. A less accurate reading results C. Cross modulation occurs D. Intermodulation distortion occurs 4AD-3.1 What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of an oscilloscope? A. Sweep oscillator quality and deflection amplifier bandwidth B. Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage C. Sweep oscillator quality and tube face voltage increments D. Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency increments 4AD-3.2 What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of a D'Arsonval movement type meter? A. Calibration, coil impedance and meter size B. Calibration, series resistance and electromagnet current C. Coil impedance, electromagnet voltage and movement mass D. Calibration, mechanical tolerance and coil impedance 4AD-3.3 What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of a frequency counter? A. Number of digits in the readout, speed of the logic and time base stability B. Time base accuracy, speed of the logic and time base stability C. Time base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic and time base stability D. Number of digits in the readout, external frequency reference and temperature coefficient of the logic 4AD-3.4 How can the frequency response of an oscilloscope be improved? A. By using a triggered sweep and a crystal oscillator as the time base B. By using a crystal oscillator as the time base and increasing the vertical sweep rate C. By increasing the vertical sweep rate and the horizontal amplifier frequency response D. By increasing the horizontal sweep rate and the vertical amplifier frequency response 4AD-3.5 How can the accuracy of a frequency counter be improved? A. By using slower digital logic B. By improving the accuracy of the frequency response C. By increasing the accuracy of the time base D. By using faster digital logic 4AD-4.1 What is the condition called which occurs when the signals of two transmitters in close proximity mix together in one or both of their final amplifiers, and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the original transmissions are generated? A. Amplifier desensitization B. Neutralization C. Adjacent channel interference D. Intermodulation interference 4AD-4.2 How does ++++intermodulation interference++++ between two transmitters usually occur? A. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead B. When they are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or both of their final amplifiers C. When they are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in one or both of their final amplifiers D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead 4AD-4.3 How can intermodulation interference between two transmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated? A. By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power B. By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the feed line to the transmitter and duplexer C. By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line D. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line 4AD-4.4 What can occur when a non-linear amplifier is used with a single-sideband phone transmitter? A. Reduced amplifier efficiency B. Increased intelligibility C. Sideband inversion D. Distortion 4AD-4.5 How can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in transmitter amplifier design? A. By using a push-push amplifier B. By using a push-pull amplifier C. By operating class C D. By operating class AB 4AD-5.1 What is ++++receiver desensitizing++++? A. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too low B. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too high C. A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong signal on a nearby frequency D. A reduction in receiver sensitivity when the AF gain control is turned down 4AD-5.2 What is the term used to refer to the reduction of receiver gain caused by the signals of a nearby station transmitting in the same frequency band? A. Desensitizing B. Quieting C. Cross modulation interference D. Squelch gain rollback 4AD-5.3 What is the term used to refer to a reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by unwanted high-level adjacent channel signals? A. Intermodulation distortion B. Quieting C. Desensitizing D. Overloading 4AD-5.4 What causes ++++receiver desensitizing++++? A. Audio gain adjusted too low B. Squelch gain adjusted too high C. The presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency D. Squelch gain adjusted too low 4AD-5.5 How can ++++receiver desensitizing++++ be reduced? A. Ensure good RF shielding between the transmitter and receiver B. Increase the transmitter audio gain C. Decrease the receiver squelch gain D. Increase the receiver bandwidth 4AD-6.1 What is ++++cross-modulation interference++++? A. Interference between two transmitters of different modulation type B. Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp C. Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signal D. Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal 4AD-6.2 What is the term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being received? A. Intermodulation distortion B. Cross-modulation interference C. Receiver quieting D. Capture effect 4AD-6.3 How can ++++cross-modulation++++ in a receiver be reduced? A. By installing a filter at the receiver B. By using a better antenna C. By increasing the receiver's RF gain while decreasing the AF gain D. By adjusting the pass-band tuning 4AD-6.4 What is the result of ++++cross-modulation++++? A. A decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals B. Receiver quieting C. The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired signal D. Inverted sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier 4AD-7.1 What is the ++++capture effect++++? A. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver B. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver C. The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal D. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal 4AD-7.2 What is the term used to refer to the reception blockage of one FM-phone signal by another FM-phone signal? A. Desensitization B. Cross-modulation interference C. Capture effect D. Frequency discrimination 4AD-7.3 With which emission type is the capture-effect most pronounced? A. FM B. SSB C. AM D. CW 4AE-1.1 What is ++++reactive power++++? A. Wattless, non-productive power B. Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor C. Power lost because of capacitor leakage D. Power consumed in circuit Q 4AE-1.2 What is the term for an out-of-phase, non-productive power associated with inductors and capacitors? A. Effective power B. True power C. Peak envelope power D. Reactive power 4AE-1.3 What is the term for energy that is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field? A. Potential energy B. Amperes-joules C. Joules-coulombs D. Kinetic energy 4AE-1.4 What is responsible for the phenomenon when voltages across reactances in series can often be larger than the voltages applied to them? A. Capacitance B. Resonance C. Conductance D. Resistance 4AE-2.1 What is ++++resonance++++ in an electrical circuit? A. The highest frequency that will pass current B. The lowest frequency that will pass current C. The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance D. The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum 4AE-2.2 Under what conditions does resonance occur in an electrical circuit? A. When the power factor is at a minimum B. When inductive and capacitive reactances are equal C. When the square root of the sum of the capacitive and inductive reactances is equal to the resonant frequency D. When the square root of the product of the capacitive and inductive reactances is equal to the resonant frequency 4AE-2.3 What is the term for the phenomena which occurs in an electrical circuit when the inductive reactance equals the capacitive reactance? A. Reactive quiescence B. High Q C. Reactive equilibrium D. Resonance 4AE-2.4 What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance B. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance C. Approximately equal to XL D. Approximately equal to XC 4AE-2.5 What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance B. Approximately equal to XL C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance D. Approximately equal to XC 4AE-2.6 What is the characteristic of the current flow in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. It is at a minimum B. It is at a maximum C. It is DC D. It is zero 4AE-2.7 What is the characteristic of the current flow in a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a minimum B. The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a maximum C. The current circulating in the parallel elements is DC D. The current circulating in the parallel elements is zero 4AE-3.1 What is the ++++skin effect++++? A. The phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, close to the surface, as frequency increases B. The phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, close to the surface, as frequency decreases C. The phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance D. The phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance 4AE-3.2 What is the term for the phenomenon where most of an RF current flows along the surface of the conductor? A. Layer effect B. Seeburg Effect C. Skin effect D. Resonance 4AE-3.3 Where does practically all of the RF current flow in a conductor? A. Along the surface B. In the center of the conductor C. In the magnetic field around the conductor D. In the electromagnetic field in the conductor center 4AE-3.4 Why does practically all of an RF current flow within a few thousandths-of-an-inch of the conductor's surface? A. Because of skin effect B. Because the RF resistance of the conductor is much less than the DC resistance C. Because of heating of the metal at the conductor's interior D. Because of the AC-resistance of the conductor's self inductance 4AE-3.5 Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF current than for DC? A. Because the insulation conducts current at radio frequencies B. Because of the Heisenburg Effect C. Because of skin effect D. Because conductors are non-linear devices 4AE-4.1 What is a ++++magnetic field++++? A. Current flow through space around a permanent magnet B. A force set up when current flows through a conductor C. The force between the plates of a charged capacitor D. The force that drives current through a resistor 4AE-4.2 In what direction is the magnetic field about a conductor when current is flowing? A. In the same direction as the current B. In a direction opposite to the current flow C. In all directions; omnidirectional D. In a direction determined by the left hand rule 4AE-4.3 What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field? A. A battery B. A transformer C. A capacitor D. An inductor 4AE-4.4 What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field? A. Coulombs B. Joules C. Watts D. Volts 4AE-4.5 What factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor? A. Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and distance between the plates B. Area of the plates, distance between the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates C. Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates D. Area of the plates, amount of charge on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates 4AE-4.6 What is the dielectric constant for air? A. Approximately 1 B. Approximately 2 C. Approximately 4 D. Approximately 0 4AE-4.7 What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor? A. The resistance divided by the current B. The ratio of the current to the resistance C. The diameter of the conductor D. The amount of current 4AE-5.1 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 79.6 MHz B. 1.78 MHz C. 3.56 MHz D. 7.96 MHz 4AE-5.2 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 1.99 kHz B. 1.78 MHz C. 1.99 MHz D. 1.78 kHz 4AE-5.3 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 3.18 MHz B. 3.18 kHz C. 7.12 MHz D. 7.12 kHz 4AE-5.4 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 10.1 MHz B. 63.7 MHz C. 10.1 kHz D. 63.7 kHz 4AE-5.5 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 13.1 MHz B. 14.5 MHz C. 14.5 kHz D. 13.1 kHz 4AE-5.6 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 4 microhenrys and C is 20 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 19.9 kHz B. 17.8 kHz C. 19.9 MHz D. 17.8 MHz 4AE-5.7 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 8 microhenrys and C is 7 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 2.84 MHz B. 28.4 MHz C. 21.3 MHz D. 2.13 MHz 4AE-5.8 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 23.7 MHz B. 23.7 kHz C. 35.4 kHz D. 35.4 MHz 4AE-5.9 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 4 microhenrys and C is 8 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 28.1 kHz B. 28.1 MHz C. 49.7 MHz D. 49.7 kHz 4AE-5.10 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 1 microhenry and C is 9 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 17.7 MHz B. 17.7 kHz C. 53.1 MHz D. 53.1 kHz 4AE-5.11 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 1 microhenry and C is 10 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 50.3 MHz B. 15.9 MHz C. 15.9 kHz D. 50.3 kHz 4AE-5.12 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 2 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 29.1 kHz B. 29.1 MHz C. 5.31 MHz D. 5.31 kHz 4AE-5.13 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 5 microhenrys and C is 9 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 23.7 kHz B. 3.54 kHz C. 23.7 MHz D. 3.54 MHz 4AE-5.14 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 2 microhenrys and C is 30 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 2.65 kHz B. 20.5 kHz C. 2.65 MHz D. 20.5 MHz 4AE-5.15 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 15 microhenrys and C is 5 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 18.4 MHz B. 2.12 MHz C. 18.4 kHz D. 2.12 kHz 4AE-5.16 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 1.33 kHz B. 14.5 MHz C. 1.33 MHz D. 14.5 kHz 4AE-5.17 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 40 microhenrys and C is 6 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 6.63 MHz B. 6.63 kHz C. 10.3 MHz D. 10.3 kHz 4AE-5.18 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 10 microhenrys and C is 50 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 3.18 MHz B. 3.18 kHz C. 7.12 kHz D. 7.12 MHz 4AE-5.19 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 200 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 3.56 MHz B. 7.96 kHz C. 3.56 kHz D. 7.96 MHz 4AE-5.20 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 90 microhenrys and C is 100 picofarads [see graphics addendum]? A. 1.77 MHz B. 1.68 MHz C. 1.77 kHz D. 1.68 kHz 4AE-5.21 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95? A. 18.9 kHz B. 1.89 kHz C. 189 Hz D. 58.7 kHz 4AE-5.22 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 3.6 MHz and a Q of 218? A. 58.7 kHz B. 606 kHz C. 47.3 kHz D. 16.5 kHz 4AE-5.23 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? A. 211 kHz B. 16.5 kHz C. 47.3 kHz D. 21.1 kHz 4AE-5.24 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 12.8 MHz and a Q of 218? A. 21.1 kHz B. 27.9 kHz C. 17 kHz D. 58.7 kHz 4AE-5.25 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 150? A. 95 kHz B. 10.5 kHz C. 10.5 MHz D. 17 kHz 4AE-5.26 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 21.15 MHz and a Q of 95? A. 4.49 kHz B. 44.9 kHz C. 22.3 kHz D. 222.6 kHz 4AE-5.27 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 10.1 MHz and a Q of 225? A. 4.49 kHz B. 44.9 kHz C. 22.3 kHz D. 223 kHz 4AE-5.28 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 18.1 MHz and a Q of 195? A. 92.8 kHz B. 10.8 kHz C. 22.3 kHz D. 44.9 kHz See ADV-2.ASC for the continuation of this pool...